EEGUC Multiple Choie Questions
1.
For given maximum axle load tractive efforts
of AC. locomotive will be
(a)
Less than that of D.C. locomotive
(b)
More than that of D.C. locomotive
(c)
Equal to that of D.C. locomotive
(d)
None of the above
2. The
consideration involved in the selection of the type of electric drive for a
particular application depends upon
(a)
Speed control range and its nature
(b)
Starting Nature
(c)
Environmental
condition
(d)
All of the above
3.
Series motor is not suited for traction duty due to which of the following account?
(a)
Less current drain on the heavy load torque
(b)
Current surges after temporary switching off supply
(c)
Self relieving
property
(d)
Commutating property at heavy load
4.
Which of the following happens in Kando system?
(a)
Three phase A.C. is converted into D.C.
(b)
Single phase A.C. is converted into D.C.
(c)
Single phase supply is converted into three
phase system
(d)
None of the above
5.
locomotive
has the highest operational availability.
(a)
Electric
(b)
Diesel
(c)
Steam
(d)
Petrol
6.
Automatic signalling is used for which of
the following trains?
(a)
Mail and express trains
(b)
Superfast trains
(c)
Suburban and Urban electric trains
(d)
All trains
7.
The coasting retardation is around
(a)
0.16 km phps
(b)
1.6 km phps
(c)
16 km phps
(d)
40 km phps
8.
The speed of a superfast train is
(a)
60 kmph
(b)
75 kmph
(c)
100 kmph
(d)
More than 100
kmph
10. The
friction at the track is proportional to
(a)
1/speed
(b)
1/(speed)2
(c)
Speed
(d)
None of the above
11. Suburban
railways use
(a)
1500 V DC
(b)
440 V three phase AC
(c)
660 V three phase AC
(d)
3.3 kV three phase AC
12. Long
distance railways use
(a)
200 V DC
(b)
25 kV Single phase AC
(c)
25 kV Two phase
AC
(d)
25 kV Three phase AC.
13. A
submarine while moving under water, is provided driving power through
(a)
diesel engines
(b)
steam turbine
(c)
gas turbine
(d)
batteries
14. Which
locomotive has the highest operational availability
(a)
Diesel
(b)
Electric
(c)
Steam
(d)
All have same availability.
15. Which
motor is used in tramways
(a)
AC single phase capacitor start motor
(b)
AC three phase
motor
(c)
DC series motor
(d)
DC shunt motor.
16. A
drive suitable for mines where explosive gas exist, is
(a)
Diesel engine
(b)
Steam engine
(c)
Battery locomotive
(d)
Any of the above.
17. In
case of locomotives the tractive power is provided by
(a)
single cylinder double acting steam engine
(b)
double cylinder, single acting steam engine
(c)
double cylinder, double acting steam engine
(d)
single stage steam turbine
18. The
wheels of a train, engine as well as bogies, are slightly tapered to
(a)
reduce friction
(b)
increase friction
(c)
facilitate braking
(d)
facilitate in taking turns
19. Overall
efficiency of steam locomotive system is close
to
(a)
5 to 10%
(b) 25 to 30%
(c) 55 to 60% (d) 75 to 80%.
20. Which
of the following braking systems on the locomotives is costly ?
(a)
Regenerative braking on electric locomotives
(b)
Vacuum braking on diesel locomotives
(c)
Vacuum braking on steam locomotives
(d)
All braking systems are equally costly
21. For
given maximum axle load tractive efforts of AC. locomotive will be
(a)
less than that of D.C. locomotive
(b)
more than that of D.C. locomotive
(c)
equal to that of D.C. locomotive
(d)
none of the above
22. Quadrilateral
speed-time curve pertains to which of the following services ?
(a)
Main line service
(b)
Urban service
(c)
Sub-urban service
(d)
Urban and sub-urban service
23. Co-efficient
of adhesion is
(a)
high in case of D.C. traction than in the case
of AC. traction
(b)
low in case of D.C. traction than in the case of
AC. traction
(c)
equal in both AC. and D.C. traction
(d)
any of the above
24. Which
of the following braking systems is used on steam locomotives ?
(a)
Hydraulic system
(b)
Pneumatic system
(c)
Vacuum system
(d)
None of the above
25.
In case of free
running and coasting periods are generally long.
(a)
main-line service
(b)
urban service
(c)
sub-urban service
(d)
all of the above
26. The
normal value of adhesion friction is (a) 0.12
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.75
27. Which
braking method can bring the locomotive to dead stop.
(a)
Plugging braking
(b)
Rheostatic braking
(c)
Regenerative braking
(d)
None of the above
28. The
braking retardation is usually in the range
(a)
0.15 to 0.30 km
phps
(b)
0.30 to 0.6 km
phps
(c)
0.6 to 2.4 km
phps
(d)
3 to 5 km phps
(e)
10 to 15 km phps
29. The
voltage used for suburban trains in D.C. system is usually
(a)
12 V
(b)
24 V
(c)
220 V
(d) 600 to 750 V
30. What
type electric drive is used in cranes?
(a)
Multimotor
(b)
Group.
(c)
Individual.
(d)
Both A and C
31. Colour
of light depends up on
(a)
Velocity of light
(b)
frequency
(c)
wave length
(d) both
(b) and (c)
32. Luminous
flux is
(a) The
rate of energy radiation in the form light waves
(b) The
part of light energy, radiated by Sun that is received on earth
(c)
Measured in lux
33. Candle
power is
(a)
The luminous flux emitted by the source per unit
solid angle
(b) The
light radiating capacity of a source in a given direction
(c) The
unit of Illumination.
34. The
Illumination at surface due to a source of light placed at a distance ‘d’ from
the surface varies as
(a) 1/d2 (b) 1/d (c) d (d) d2
35. The
Illumination at various points on a horizontal surface illuminated by the same
source varies as
(a) Cos 𝜃 (b) Cos 2 𝜃 (c) Cos 3 𝜽 (d) 1/ Cos 𝜃
36. A
zero watt lamp consumes power of
(a)
Zero Watt (b)
5-10 W (c) about 15W (d) about 25W
37. The
safe operating temperature of a tungsten filament lamp is (a) 1000 ° C (b) 2000
° C (c) 3000 °C (d) 3500 °C
38. The
output of a tungsten filament depends on
(a) Size
of the shell (b) size of the lamp (c)
temperature of the filament (d) all of the above
39. Filament
lamps normally operate at a power factor of (a)0.5 lagging (b) 0.8 lagging (c) Unity (d) 0.85 leading
40. Which
gas is sometimes used in filament lamps?
(a)
Nitrogen (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Argon (d) Krypton
41. In
filament lamps, coiled coil filaments are used
in
(a) Coloured
lamps (b) Gas filled lamps (c) Low
wattage lamps (d) Higher wattage lamps
42. The
ignition voltage for a sodium lamp is about
(a) 100-125 V (b) 200-240 V (c)
300-400V (d) 400- 600V
43. The
sodium vapour lamp
(a) Is
only suitable for AC and so needs choke control
(b) Needs
capacitor in its Auto transformer circuit to improve the power factor which is
very low (about 0.3 lagging)
(c) Comes
upto its rate output in approximately 15 minutes
(d) All
of the above
44. The
luminous efficiency of sodium vapour lamps is lumens (a) 40 – 50 (b) 50 – 100 (c) 120 – 200 (d) 10 – 12
45. The
luminous efficiency of high pressure mercury vapour lamps ranges from lumens
per watt .
(a) 30 to 40 (b) 60 to 100 (c) 100 to 150
(d) 250 to 400
46. Which
of the following lamps is a cold cathode lamp
?
(a) Sodium
vapour lamp (b) Neon lamp (c)
Mercury vapour lamp (d) None of the above
47. The
electrons of Neon tube work at
(a)
Very low temperature (b) Ordinary voltage (c) 2kv – 6 kv (d) 33kv
48. Which
of the following is present inside the
Fluorescent tube
(a)
Helium and Oxygen (b) Argon and Neon (c)
Argon and carbon dioxide (d) Mercury
vapour
49. The
capacitor is connected across the fluorescent tube circuit in order to
(a) Eliminate
the noise (b) limit the current (c)
improve the power factor of the tube circuit (d) all the above
50. In
a fluorescent tube, a ballast resistance is connected in series with the choke
(a) When
the tube is operated on DC supply
(b)
When the tube is operated on AC supply
(c) To
reduce radio interference
(d)
To reduce stroboscopic effects
51. The
flicker effects of the fluorescent lamps is more pronounced at
(a)
Lower voltages
(b)
Higher voltages
(c) Higher
frequencies
(d) Lower frequencies.
52. A fluorescent tube can be operated on
(a) Both
DC as well as AC
(b)
AC only
(c)
DC only
(d)
Satisfactorily only on DC.
53. Blinking
of a fluorescent tube may be on account of
(a)
Low circuit voltage
(b)
Loose contact
(c)
Defective starter
(d) Any
of the above.
54. The
life of a fluorescent tube is affected by
(a)
Low voltage
(b) High voltage
(c)
Frequency of switching and blinking
(d) All
of the above.
55. Floodlighting
is not used for
(a) Industrial purposes
(b) Advertising purposes
(c)
Aesthetic purposes
(d) Any
of the above.
56. Total
flux required in any lighting scheme depends inversely on
(a) Surface area
(b) Space-
height ratio
(c)
Illumination
(d)
Coefficient of utilisation.
57. The
illumination level on a surface is least affected by
(a) Candle
power of light source
(b) Ambient temperature
(c)
Type of reflector used
(d)
Distance of the light source.
58. The
illumination level in houses in the range of
(a) 20
– 50 lux (b) 100-200 lux (c)
300-500 lux
(d) 700 lux.
59. The
depreciation factor depends upon
(a)
Ageing of the
lamp(s)
(b)
Lamp cleaning schedule
(c) Type
of work carried out at the premises
(d) All
of the above.
60. The
lamp is provided with a reflector in order to
(a) Avoid glare
(b)
Provide better
illumination
(c)
Protect the lamp
(d) All
of the above.
61. Heat
Transfer by conduction will not take place when the
A. Two
bodies are at the same temperatures
B.
Bodies are kept in vaccum
C.
Bodies are immersed in water
D.
Bodies are exposed to thermal radiations
62. The
highest value of thermal conductivity is
A.
Aluminium
B.
Brass
C. Copper
D.
Iron
63. In
the indirect resistance heating method, maximum heat transfer takes place by
A.
Convection
B. Radiation
C.
Conduction
D.
All of the above
64. Direct
Resistance heating is used in
A.
Electrode Boiler
B.
Salt-bath furnace
C.
Resistance Welding
D. All
of the above
65. In
direct arc furnace which of the following is of high value?
A. Current
B.
Voltage
C.
Power Factor
D. All
of the above
66. For
arc heating, the electrodes used are made of
A. Copper
B. Graphite
C.
Tungsten
D.
Aluminium
67. In
submerged arc furnaces the power is controlled
by
A. Varying
the spacing between the electrodes
B.
Varying the voltage applied to the electrodes
C. Either
(A) or (B)
D.
Varying the arc
length
68. Usually
arc furnaces are
A. Cylindrical
or Conical Shapes
B.
Rectangular
Shape
C. Spherical Shape
D.
V-Shape
69. In
induction heating
A.
Heat is produced
due to currents induced in the charge by electromagnetic action
B. The
resistance of the charge must be low and voltage applied must be high in order
to produce sufficient heat
C. Magnetic materials
can be easily treated in comparison to non-magnetic materials
D. All
of the above
70. Induction
heating takes place in
A.
Insulating materials
B.
Conducting and magnetic materials
C.
Conducting but non-magnetic materials
D. Conducing
materials may be magnetic or non-magnetic
71. In
induction heating, which of the following is of high value
A. Frequency
B.
Current
C.
Voltage
D. Power factor
72. Induction
heating is possible in case of
A.
DC Supply only
B. AC
Supply only
C.
Ferrous Materials only
D.
Non-Conducting materials only
73.
Induction furnaces are used for
A. Heat
treatment of castings
B.
Heating
of insulators
C.
Melting
of aluninium
D. All
of the above
74. The
advantages of coreless induction furnaces are
A.
Low erection and operating cost, lower melting point and precise power control
B.
Simple charging and pouring
C. Possibility
of employing vacuum heating necessary for precious metal melting
D. All
of the above
75. In
dielectric heating current flows through
A.
Air
B. Dielectric
C. Metallic conductor
D. Ionic
discharge between dielectric medium and metallic conductor
76. Hysteresis
loss and eddy current loss are used in
A.
Resistance Heating
B.
Dielectric Heating
C. Induction
heating of Steel
D.
Induction heating of Brass
77. Dielectric
loss is proportional to
A.
Frequency
B. (frequency)2
C. (frequency)3
D. (frequency)1/2
78. The
power factor will be maximum in case of
A.
Electric
Arc Heating
B. Resistance Heating
C.
Induction Heating
D.
Dielectric Heating
79. During
resistance welding heat produced at the join is proportional to
A.
Current
B. Voltage
C.
I2R
D. Volt-amperes
80. Resistance
welding cannot be used for
A.
Ferrous materials
B. Non-ferrous materials
C. Dielectric
D.
Any of the above
81. Spot
welding process basically depends on
A.
Generation of heat
B. Application
of forging pressure
C. Both
(A) and (B)
D. All
of the above
82. In
flash-butt welding
A.
No special preparation of the faces to be welded
is necessary
B.
Clean and pure weld is obtained
C.
Power requirement is less
D. All
of the above
83. Projection
welding can be considered as a mass production form of
A.
Seam welding
B. Spot welding
C.
Upset welding
D. Flash welding
84. The
tips of the electrodes, for spot welding are made of
A. Carbon
B. Copper
alloy or pure copper
C.
Mica
D.
porcelain
85. The
electric arc has
A. Linear
resistance characteristic
B.
Positive resistance characteristic
C. Negative
resistance characteristic
D. Highly
inductive characteristic
86. For
electric arc welding dc supply is obtained from
A.
Motor – generator set
B.
AC rectified welding unit
C. Either
from motor-generator set or ac rectified unit
D.
None of the above
87. In
arc welding, the length of arc depends on
A.
Kind of electrode used its coating and its diameter
B.
Magnitude of current used
C.
Position of welding
D. All
of the above
88. Carbon
arc welding
A. Uses
carbon or graphite rod as a negative electrode and work to be welded as a
positive
B. Cannot
be done with ac supply
C.
Is not suitable for vertical and overhead welding
D. All
of the above
89. In
carbon arc welding
A. Electrode
is positive with respective to work in case of DC Supply
B. Electrode
is Negative with respective to work in case
of DC Supply
C. Electrode
is connected to neutral in case of ac supply
D. None
of the above
90. In
atomic hydrogen welding the electrodes used are made of
A.
Mild steel
B. Tungsten
C. Carbon
D.
Graphite
91. Which
of the following energy has the greatest potential among all the sources of
renewable energy?
a) Solar energy
b) Wind Energy
c) Thermal energy
d) Hydro-electrical energy
92. What
is the rate of solar energy reaching the earth
surface?
a) 1016W
b) 865W
c) 2854W
d) 1912W
93. What
is total amount of solar energy received by earth and atmosphere?
a) 3.8
X 1024 J/year
b) 9.2
X 1024 J/year
c) 5.4
X 1024 J/year
d) 2.1
X 1024 J/year
94. In
what form is solar energy is radiated from the
sun?
a) Ultraviolet Radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Electromagnetic waves
d) Transverse waves
95.
The scattered solar radiation is called
a)
Direct Radiation
b) Beam Radiation
c) Diffuse radiation
d) Infrared Radiation
96.
Insolation is less
a) when
the sun is low
b) when
the sun right above head
c) at night
d) at
sun rise
97. The angle of deviation
of the normal to the surface from the local meridian is called as
 |
a) Surface
azimuth angle
b) Solar
azimuth angle
c) Solar altitude
d) Hour angle
98.
The time from sunrise to sunset is termed as
a) Slope
b) Day length
c) Local
solar time
d) Solar intensity
99.
Instrument
used to measure direct beam of solar irradiance is called
a) Pyranometer
b) Net radiometer
c) Gardon gauge
d) Pyrheliometer
100. Absorption
of Solar radiations at earth’s surface occur due to presence of
a) Ozone
b) Water vapours
c) Carbon di-oxide
d) All
of the above
101. The
value of Solar Constant is a) 1347 W/m2
b) 1357 W/m2
c) 1367 W/m2
d) 1377 W/m2
102. The
function of a solar collector is to convert.......
a) Solar
Energy into Electricity
b) Solar
Energy radiation
c) Solar
Energy thermal energy
d) Solar
Energy mechanical energy
103. The
output of solar cell is of the order of........
(a)
1 W
(b)
5 W
(c)
10 W
(d)
20 W
104. Flat
plate collector absorbs.......
(a)
Direct radiation only
(b)
Diffuse radiation only
(c)
Direct and diffuse both
(d)
All of the above
105. Temperature
attained by a flat-plate collector is of the........
(a) Order
of about 900C
(b) Range
of 1000C to
1500C
(c) Above 1500C
(d)
None of the above
106. A
module in a solar panel refers to
(a)
Series arrangement of solar cells.
(b)
Parallel arrangement of solar cells.
(c)
Series and parallel arrangement of solar cells.
(d)
None of the above.
107. What
is the maximum possible output of a solar array?
(a) 300 W/m2
(b) 100 W/m2
(c) 250 W/m2
(d) 500 W/m2
108. The
current density of a photo voltaic cell ranges
from
(a) 10 –
20 mA/cm2
(b) 40 – 50 mA/cm2
(c)
20 – 40 mA/cm2 (d) 60 – 100 mA/cm2
109. Temperature
attained by cylindrical parabolic collector is of the order of (a) 50 – 100 °C
(b) 100 – 150 °C
(c) 150 – 200 °C
(d)
200 – 300 °C
110. In
a solar collector, why is the transparent cover provide for?
(a)
Protect the collector from dust.
(b)
Reduce the heat losses from collector beneath to atmosphere.
(c)
Transmit solar radiation only
(d)
All of the above.
111. Solar
cells are made of:
(a)
Aluminium
(b)
Germanium
(c)
Silicon
(d)
Cadmium
112. The
efficiency of solar cells is about:
(a) 25%
(b)
15%
(c) 40%
(d) 60%
113. The
voltage of solar cells is:
(a)
0.5 to 1 V
(b)
1 to 2 V
(c)
2 to 3 V
(d)
4 to 5 V
114. The
output of solar cells is of the order of:
(a)
0.5 watts
(b)
1.0 watts
(c)
5.0 watts
(d)
10 watts
115. Sun
tracking system is required in the case of:
(a)
Cylindrical and parabolic and paraboloid
(b)
Flat plate collector
(c)
Both (a) and (b)
(d)
None of the above
116. Most
of the solar radiation received on the earth surface is within the range of:
(a)
0.25 to 0.4 micron
(b)
0.4 to 0.8 microns
(c)
0.6 to 0.95 microns
(d)
0.1 to 0.25 microns
117. The
efficiency of a flat-plate solar collector using water as a heat-exchange fluid
is largest at which of the following temperature for the absorber plate? Assume
Ta = 250C.
(a)
400C
(b) 600C
(c) 800C
(d) 1000C
118. Sunlight at Earth's surface is around
(a)
0.6 to 0.10 percent ultraviolet
(b) 3 to 5 percent ultraviolet
(c) 0.3 to 0.8 percent ultraviolet
(d) 0.1 to 0.5 percent ultraviolet
119. Temperature on the sun
is around _ (a) 575 – 600 KK
(b) 7550 – 8000 KK
(c) 4570 – 6000 KK
(d) 5750 – 6000 K
120. Which of the following type of collector is used for
low-temperature systems?
(a) Line focusing parabolic
collector
(b) Paraboloid dish collector
(c) Flat plate collector
(d) None of the above
121. What does Heating and cooling of the atmosphere generates?
a)
Thermo line circulation
b) Radiation currents
c)
Convection currents
d) Conduction currents
122. How much is the energy available in the winds over the
earth surface is estimated to be?
a) 2.9 X 120 MW
b) 1.6 X 107 MW
c) 1 MW
d) 5MW
123. How much wind power does India hold? a) 20,000 MW
b) 12,000 MW
c) 140,000 MW
d) 5000 MW
124. What is the main source for the formation of wind?
a) Uneven land
b)
Sun
c) Vegetation
d) Seasons
125. What type of energy is wind energy?
a)
Renewable energy
b) Non-renewable energy
c) Conventional energy
d) Commercial energy
126.
The amount of energy available in the wind at any instant is proportional to
of the wind speed.
(a)
Square root power of two
(b)
Square root power of three
(c) Square power
(d)
Cube power
127. Winds having
following speed are suitable to operate wind
turbines.
(a) 5 – 25m/s (b)
10 – 35m/s (c) 20 – 45m/s (d) 30 – 55m/s
128.
The wind speed is
measured using an instrument called
(a) Pyranometer
(b)
Manometer
(c)
Anemometer
(d)
Wind vane
129.
The rate of change
of wind speed with height is called
(a)
Wind shear
(b)
Wind rose
(c)
Wind solidity
(d)
None of the above
130.
At gradient height
the shear force is
(a) Zero
(b)
Minimum
(c) Maximum
(d)
None of the above
131.
The gradient height is about m
from the ground.
(a) 500 (b) 1000 (c) 1500 (d) 2000
132.
The atmosphere with uniform wind speed is called the atmosphere
(a) Plain
(b)
Surface
(c)
Free
(d)
Shear
133.
The Nacelle of
windmill houses
(a) Gearbox
(b)
Brakes
(c)
Generator
(d)
All of the above
134. In which of the following, does machine rotor drives through a step up gear box?
a)
Horizontal axis with
two aerodynamic blades
b) Horizontal axis propeller type wind mill
c) Horizontal axis multi bladed type wind mill
d) Sail type wind mill
135. The rotor blades are continuously flexed by unsteady
aerodynamic gravitational and inertia loads.
a)
True
b) False
136. Which type of the following consists of single blade?
a)
Horizontal axis with
two aerodynamic blades
b)
Horizontal axis
propeller type wind mill
c) Horizontal axis multi bladed type wind mill
d) Sail type wind mill
137. What does TSR stand for in design consideration of wind mills?
a)
Tip speed ratio
b) Torque-synchronous ratio
c) Tip suspension ratio
d) Temporary speed restriction
138. With upto how many propellers can windmills are built?
a)
4
b) 2
c) 7
d) 6
139. Turbines with how many propellers are used in order to
avoid vibrations?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
140. What type of cross sections does wind turbine blades have?
a)
Penta hedral cross section
b)
Air foiled type
cross section
c) Radar cross section
d) Turbo cross section
141. Which part of the wind mill acts as a housing for the turbine?
a) Wind Vane
b) Shaft
c)
Wind mill head
d) Turbine
142. A rotor installed in a fixed orientation with the swept
area perpendicular to the pre dominate wind direction is called
a) Nacelle
b)
Yaw fixed machines
c) Blades
d)
Anemometer
143. How is the action of yaw controlled in small turbines?
a)
Tail vane
b) Blades
c)
Shaft
d) Yaw motor
144. Which part of the wind turbines senses wind speed, wind
direction, shaft speed and torque?
a)
Turbine blade
b) Shaft
c) Rotor
d)
Controller
145. On what does the selection of supporting structure depends?
a) Length of blades
b) Rotating capacity
c)
Capacity of generator
d)
Transmission systems
146. Determine the power in the wind if the wind speed is 20
m/s and blade length is 50 m. The air density is ρ = 1.23 kg/m.
a) 15687 W
b) 77244 W
c)
38622 W
d) 25647 W
147. A wind turbine travels with the speed is 10 m/s and has a
blade length of 20 m. Determine wind power. The air density is ρ = 1.23 kg/m.
a)
772440 W
b) 687420 W
c) 587430 W
d) 698740 W
148. Why is wind turbine designed to stop operation at cut out velocity?
a)
To protect wheel
against damage
b) To make a quick stop in
emergencies
c) To improve the efficiency
d) In order to adjust the blades to wind direction
149. The fraction of time during a given period that the turbine is actually
on line is called?
a)
Availability factor
b) Flat rating
c) Cut in velocity
d) Cut out velocity
150. Name the windmill which has four blades mounted on a
central post.
a)
Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
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