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Unit -1 Introduction |
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1 |
How a quality can be quantified A.
Performance +
Expectations B.
Performance X
Expectations C. Performance
– Expectations D.
Performance /
Expectations Explanation: Quality can be quantified by Quality
(Q) = Performance (P) /Expectations (E) So option D is correct |
D |
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2 |
Traditional culture of quality
requirements focuses on A.
Product oriented B.
Process oriented C.
Customer oriented D.
Supplier oriented Explanation: Traditional
culture of quality requirements is Product oriented, whereas TQM culture is
Process oriented. So option A is correct |
A |
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3 |
American quality guru who took the
message of quality to Japan A.
Genichi Taguchi B.
Masaaki Imai C.
Shigeo Shingo D.
W. Edwards Deming Explanation: American quality Guru’s are W. Edward Deming,
Walter Shewhart, Philip Crosby, Joseph M Juran. So option D is correct |
D |
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4 |
PDCA cycle is the contribution of A.
Walter Shewhart B.
Philip Crosby C.
Genichi Taguchi D.
W. Edward Deming Explanation: W. Edward Deming contributions are 1. Deming’s
14 points route to quality 2. Deming
Cycle or PDCA cycle 3. Seven
deadly diseases of Management 4. System
of profound knowledge So option D
is Correct |
D |
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5 |
In TQM , the contributions of quality
Guru W. Edward Deming A. Deming’s 14 points |
D |
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B.
Deming’s Cycle C. System
of profound knowledge D.
All the above Explanation: W. Edward Deming
contributions are 1. Deming’s
14 points route to quality 2. Deming
Cycle or PDCA cycle 3. Seven
deadly diseases of Management 4. System
of profound knowledge So option D
is Correct |
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6 |
Which one is Juran’s “three- role model” A.
Supplier – Process – Customer B.
Customer - Process – Customer C.
Process – Customer – Supplier D. Process
– Supplier – Customer Explanation: Juran’s “Three role model” is Supplier –
Process – Customer So option A is correct |
A |
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7 |
In TQM, how many elements are there in
Quality statements A.
1 B.
2 C.
3 D.
4 Explanation: Quality statements has three elements 1. Vision statement 2. Mission statement 3. Quality
policy statement So option C is correct |
C |
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8 |
What are the elements of Quality
statements A.
Vision statement B. Mission statement C.
Quality policy statement D.
All the above Explanation: Quality
statements has three elements 1. Vision statement 2. Mission statement 3. Quality
policy statement So option D is correct |
D |
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9 |
Quality Trilogy is the contributions of A. Walter
Shewhart B.
Philip Crosby C.
Joseph M Juran D.
W. Edward Deming Explanation: Juran’s Contributions are 1. Internal customer 2. Cost
of quality 3. Fitness
of Use 4. Quality trilogy 5. Juran’s
10 steps for quality improvement 6. Breakthrough
concept So option C is correct |
C |
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10 |
In TQM ,
the contributions of quality Guru Joseph M Juran A.
Internal Customer B.
Cost of Quality C.
Breakthrough
Concept D. All
the above Explanation: Juran’s Contributions are 1. Internal customer 2. Cost
of quality 3. Quality trilogy 4. Fitness
of Use 5. Juran’s
10 steps for quality improvement 6. Breakthrough
concept So option D is correct |
D |
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11 |
The
contributions of quality Guru Philip Crosby in TQM A.
PDCA Cycle B.
Quality trilogy C.
PDSA D.
Concept of Zero defects Explanation: Philip Crosby’s contributions are 1. Four
absolutes of quality 2. 14
steps to quality management 3. Crosby’s
quality vaccine 4. Concept
of Zero defects So option D is correct |
D |
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12 |
The
contribution of Four absolute of Quality is given by A.
Walter Shewhart B.
Philip Crosby C.
Joseph M Juran D.
W. Edward Deming Explanation: Philip Crosby’s contributions are 1. Four
absolutes of quality 2. 14
steps to quality management 3. Crosby’s
quality vaccine 4. Concept
of Zero defects So option B is correct |
B |
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13 |
Cost of
quality is given by costs of A.
Prevention + Appraisal +Internal failure
+External failure B.
Prevention +
Appraisal C.
Internal failure + External failure D.
Appraisal + Internal failure Explanation: Cost of quality = Prevention cost + Appraisal cost + Internal
failure cost + External failure cost So option A is correct |
A |
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14 |
In
components of CoQ, Cost of good quality contains A.
Prevention
cost B.
Appraisal cost C.
Both A and B D.
None of the above Explanation: CoQ of good quality = Prevention cost +
Appraisal cost So option C is correct |
C |
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15 |
In components of CoQ, Cost of poor
quality contains A.
Internal failure cost B.
External failure cost C.
Both A and B D.
None of the above Explanation: CoQ
of good quality = Internal failure cost + External failure cost So option C is correct |
C |
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16 |
The Teboul’s customer satisfaction model
depends on A. Company offer B.
Customer needs C.
Both A and B D.
None of the above Explanation: Teboul’s
customer satisfaction model is the intersection of Company offer and Customer
needs So option C is correct |
C |
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17 |
Customer perception on quality contains A.
Performance B.
Features C. Service D.
All the above Explanation: Customer perception on quality are performance,
Features, Service, Warranty, Price and Reputation So option D is correct |
D |
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18 |
Tools used for collecting customer
complaints A.
Comment cards B. Focus groups C.
Toll free Telephone numbers D.
All the above Explanation: Tools
used for receiving customer complaints 1. Comment Cards 2. Customer
Questionnaire 3. Post-transaction surveys 4. Employee feedback 5.Focus
groups 6.Toll free Telephone numbers. So
option D is correct |
D |
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19 |
PDCA cycle stands for A.
Plan Do Check
Act B.
Plan Did Check Act C.
Process Do Check Act D.
Process Did Check Acknowledge Explanation: PDCA cycle stands for Plan Do Check Act as per
E. Deming So option A is correct |
A |
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20 |
Dimensions of quality contains A.
Performance B. Reliability C.
Conformance D.
All the above Explanation: Dimensions of quality
contain Performance, features, usability, conformance to
standards/specifications, reliability, durability, maintainability. So
option D is correct |
D |
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21 |
TQM culture of quality requirements
focuses on A.
Product oriented B.
Process oriented |
B |
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C.
Customer oriented D.
Supplier oriented Explanation: TQM
culture of quality requirements is Process oriented, whereas Traditional
culture is Product oriented. So option B is correct |
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22 |
Dimensions of Service quality contains A.
Tangibles B.
Reliability C.
Assurance D. All
the above Explanation: Dimensions
of Service quality contains Tangibles , Reliability, Assurance, empathy,
Responsiveness So option D is correct |
D |
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23 |
Japanese quality guru who developed new
concepts in response to the American gurus A.
Walter Shewhart B.
Philip Crosby C.
Genichi Taguchi D.
W. Edward Deming Explanation: Japanese
quality guru are Genichi Taguchi, Masaaki Imai, Shigeo Shingo. So option C is
correct |
C |
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24 |
In TQM, the customer need can be
understandable by which model A.
Taguchi Model B.
Kano Model C.
Deming Model D.
Kaizen Model Explanation: Kano
proposed a model to understand the customer need. Whereas others
contributions are not with respect to customer need. So option B is correct |
B |
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25 |
The most common techniques used for
analyzing the quality costs are A. Trend Analysis B.
Pareto Analysis C.
Both A and B D.
None of the above Explanation: The techniques used for analyzing the quality costs are Trend Analysis and
Pareto Analysis So option C is correct |
C |
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26 |
In continuous improvement, PDSA stands
for A.
Plan Do Study
Act B.
Plan Did Study Act C. Process
Do Study Act D.
Process Did Study Acknowledge Explanation: PDSA stands for Plan Do Study Act So option A
is correct |
A |
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27 |
The system for causing quality is
preventive, not appraisal is A.
First absolute B.
Second absolute C.
Third absolute D.
Fourth absolute Explanation: First absolute: Definition of Quality Second
absolute: The system for causing quality is preventive, not appraisal |
B |
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Third
absolute: Zero defect Fourth
absolute: The measurement of quality is the price of non-conformance, not
indexes So option B is correct |
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28 |
The Quality as “ Fitness of Use” is given
by A. Walter
Shewhart B.
Philip Crosby C.
Joseph M Juran D.
W. Edward Deming Explanation: Juran’s Contributions are 1. Internal customer 2. Cost
of quality 3. Fitness
of Use 4. Quality trilogy 5. Juran’s
10 steps for quality improvement 6. Breakthrough
concept So option C is correct |
C |
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29 |
Cost generated before the before a
product is shipped as a result of non-conformance to requirements is A.
Appraisal cost B.
Internal failure cost C.
External failure cost D.
Prevention
cost Explanation: Internal
failure cost: Cost generated before the before a product is shipped as a
result of non-conformance to requirements. External failure cost: Cost
generated before the after a product is shipped as a result of
non-conformance to requirements So
option B is correct |
B |
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30 |
The expression of dissatisfaction with a
product either orally or written is A.
Customer retention B. Customer satisfaction C.
Customer complaints D.
Customer service Explanation: Customer complaint is defined as The expression
of dissatisfaction with a product either orally or written. So option C is
correct |
C |
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UNIT-II TQM Principles |
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31 |
Success of each organization is depending on the performance of a) Employer b) Management c)
Employee d)
Vendor Explanation: Employee involvement improves the quality and productivity at all
levels of organization. So
option c is correct |
c |
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32 |
A satisfied employee will be a a) Manager b) High performer c) Motivator to others d) Team leader Explanation: A satisfied
employee will improve their work continuously, find new goals and change
challenges. |
b |
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So
option b is correct |
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33 |
Motivation includes a) Job satisfaction b) Job enrichment c) Job enlargement d) All of the above Explanation: Motivation promotes job
satisfaction and thus reduces absenteeism and turnover. So
option d is correct |
d |
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34 |
Which is the process of stimulating people to actions to accomplish
the goals? a) Bonus b) Motivation c) Performance based
incentive d)
Promotion Explanation: Motivation is the process of inducing people inner drives and action
towards certain goals. So
option b is correct |
b |
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35 |
Which theory emphasizes that, Unsatisfied need can influence the
behavior, satisfied one will not act as a motivator? a)
Maslow Theory b)
Herzberg’s Theory c)
Expectancy theory d)
Alderfer’s
ERG theory Explanation: Maslow
emphasizes that any unsatisfied need, whether of lower order or higher order,
will motivate individuals. So option a is correct |
a |
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36 |
Which of the following is responsible for quality
objective? a) Top level management b) Middle level management
c)Frontline management d)All of the above Explanation: It is the
responsibility of top management to implement and maintain the quality
policy. So
option a is correct |
a |
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37 |
EMS stands for a)Environmental management system b)Employees management
system c)Engineering management system d)Equipment management system Explanation: An Environmental
management system focuses resources on meeting the commitments identified
in the organization's policy. So
option a is correct |
a |
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38 |
Maslow says that Human beings are full of needs
& wants. And these needs will lead to their? a) Job b) Behavior c)
Attitude |
b |
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d) Motivation Explanation: Maslow hierarchy states that a lower level
must be completely satisfied and fulfilled before moving onto a higher
pursuit. So
option b is correct. |
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39 |
The Need which improves the confidence level of an employee is a) Social b) Safety c) Basic d) Esteem Explanation: Self esteem needs include
those for self confidence, achievement, self-respect etc So
option d is correct. |
d |
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40 |
Which of the following is not a part of hygiene factor of two factor
theory a) Company policy b) Administration c) Responsibilities d) Interpersonal Relations Explanation: Hygiene factors are
necessary to maintain a reasonable level of satisfaction among employees. So
option c is correct. |
c |
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41 |
Responsibility, Advancement etc are example of a) Motivators b) Hygiene factors c) Improvement factors d) Advance factors Explanation: Total
quality management is a great motivator for
employees as it taps their intellectual treasure for the success of the
organization. So
option a is correct. |
a |
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42 |
Continual improvement is in a) Environmental objective b) Audit Result c) Corrective action d) All of the above Explanation: Continual improvement is an ongoing effort to improve
products, services, or processes. So
option d is correct. |
d |
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43 |
Kaizen is a) Small change b) Big improvement c) Sudden impact d) All of the above Explanation: Kaizen is a
Japanese term meaning "change for the better" or "continuous
improvement." So
option a is correct. |
a |
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44 |
While setting Quality objective, which need is to be considered. a) Organization need |
b |
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b)
Customer need c)
Employees need d)
All of the above Explanation: Quality objectives are measurable
goals relevant to enhancing customer satisfaction and are consistent with the
quality policy. So
option b is correct. |
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45 |
Plan-do-study-act cycle is a procedure to a)
Overall improvement b)
Continuous improvement c)
Permanent improvement d)
Immediate improvement Explanation: PDSA cycle is an iterative four-step management method
used in business for the control and continuous improvement of processes and
products So
option b is correct. |
b |
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46 |
Quality practices must be carried out a.
at the start of the
project b.
throuout the life of the project c.
at the end of the project d.
no need to carry out quality practices Explanation: Quality
practices, such as, teamwork and participation, customer focus and
satisfaction, continuous improvement, were identified as best practices for
TQM implementation. So
option b is correct. |
b |
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47 |
Quality Trilogy includes a)
Quality planning b)
quality improvement c)
quality control d)
All the three Explanation: Juran's trilogy," an approach to cross-functional
management that is composed of three managerial processes: quality planning,
quality control and quality improvement. So
option d is correct. |
d |
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48 |
Kaizen is a – process the purpose of which goes beyond
simple productivity improvement. a)
weekly b) daily c)
monthly |
b |
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d) annual Explanation: Kaizen focuses on applying small, daily
changes that result in major improvements
over time. So
option b is correct. |
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49 |
“Poko-Yoke” is the Japanese term for a)
Card b)
Fool proof c)
Continuous improvement d)
Fishbone diagram Explanation: SEIKETSU
practices such as colour coding, Fool Proofing, Responsibility labels can be
followed at the workplace. So option b
is correct. |
b |
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50 |
Identify the cost not likely to reduce as a result of
better quality. a)
Maintenance costs b)
Inspection costs c)
Scrap costs d)
Warranty and service
costs Explanation: Maintenance cost are
incurred not to reduce as a result of better quality So option a is correct. |
a |
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51 |
Quality Management includes forming and directing a
team of people to achieve a qualitative goal within an effective cost and
time frame that results in a)
a project completed in shortest possible time. b)
a product or service that conforms to the required specifications. c)
an award-winning product that brings public recognition
to the project d)
an innovative project that establishes qualification of
the project team Explanation: Organizations seek
sustained success through the implementation of a quality management system
So option b is correct. |
b |
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52 |
Quality fulfils a need or expectation that is a)
Explicitly stated b)
Implied c)
Legally required d)
All of the above Explanation: Quality refers to
the set of inherent properties of an object that allows satisfying stated or
implied needs. So option d
is correct. |
d |
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53 |
Which of the following is not a target of Total Quality Management a)
Customer Satisfaction b) Reducing
manpower c) Continuous
Cost Reduction d) Continuous
Operational Improvement Explanation: Total
quality management (TQM) describes
a management approach to long-term success through customer satisfaction. So option b is correct. |
b |
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54 |
The roof of House of Quality shows the interrelationship between a)
Functional Requirements b) Design
Attributes c) Service
Process d) Manufacturing
Process Explanation: HOQ is considered the primary tool
used during quality function deployment to help facilitate group decision making. So option b is correct. |
b |
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55 |
Two major component of fitness of use are Quality Design and a)
Quality of Conformance b) Quality of Service c) Quality of Specification d) Quality of Manufacturing Explanation: The degree to which products conform to essential requirements
and meet the needs of users for which they are intended. So option a is correct. |
a |
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56 |
Which is the set of
activities that ensures the quality levels of product and services are
properly maintained and that supplier and customer quality issues are
properly resolved? a)
Quality Assurance b) Quality Planning c) Quality Control d) Quality Management Explanation: Quality Assurance (QA) is defined as an activity to ensure that an organization is providing the best
possible product or service to customers. So option a is correct. |
a |
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57 |
Which of the following are responsible for Quality objective? |
a |
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a)
Top level management b)
Middle level management c)
Frontline management d)
All of the above Explanation: Top level management
shall demonstrate leadership and commitment with respect to the quality
management system. So option a is correct. |
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58 |
While setting Quality objective, which need has to be considered. a)
Customer need b)
Organizational need c)
Supplier need d)
Worker need Explanation: A customer need is a
motive that prompts a customer to buy a product or service. So option a is correct. |
a |
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59 |
The role of management is to a)
provide Resources b)
define EMS c)
monitor the effectiveness of the system d)
All of the above Explanation: Management responsibilities are to ensure operational
efficiency, financial reporting quality, and compliance with applicable laws,
regulations, rules, and standards. So option d is correct. |
d |
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60 |
Which refers to general
processes of improvement and encompasses discontinuous improvements? a)
Continuous improvement b)
Continual improvement c)
Constant improvement d)
Consecutive improvement Explanation: Continual improvement is the ongoing improvement of products,
services or processes through incremental and breakthrough improvements. So option b is correct. |
b |
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UNIT-III TQM TOOLS AND TECHNIQUES I |
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61 |
Which of the following is
not a process tool for TQM A.
process flow analysis B. histograms |
C |
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C. plier D. control charts Explanation:
A process
flow chart is a logical, relatively easy to understand chart, which displays how a process operates via using standard symbols to represent
activity.Control used to study how a process changes over
time. The Histogram is a kind of bar chart showing a distribution of variables
or causes of problems. But plier is not a TQM tool.It is a manufacturing tool. |
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62 |
The charts that identify
the potential causes for a particular quality problem. A.
Control Chart B.
Flow chart C.
Cause and Effect Diagram D.
Pareto chart Explanation:
Control
used to study how a process changes over time. The Histogram is a kind of bar chart
showing a distribution of variables or causes of problems. Flowcharting is typically used to map a process flow
showing the beginning of a process, decision points, and the end of the
process. A Pareto Chart is a graph
that indicates the
frequency of defects, as well as their cumulative impact. Cause and Effect Diagrams are charts that
identify the potential causes for a particular quality problem. |
C |
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63 |
In six sigma, which of the following is
defined as any process output that does not meet customer specification? A.
Error B.
Cost C.
Quality D.
Defect Explanation:
Six Sigma strategies
seek to improve the quality of the output of a process by identifying
and removing the causes of defects and minimizing impact variability in
manufacturing and business processes. |
D |
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64 |
A Fish bone diagram is
also known as A.
cause-and-effect diagram B.
poka-yoke diagram C.
Kaizen diagram D.
Taguchi diagram Explanation:
The fishbone diagram or
Ishikawa diagram is a cause-and-effect diagram that helps
managers to track down the reasons for
imperfections, variations, defects,
or failures. The diagram looks just like a fish's
skeleton with the problem at its head and the causes for the problem feeding
into the spine. |
A |
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65 |
A maturity model can be
used as the benchmark for comparison and an aid to understanding A.
TRUE B.
FALSE C.
depends D.
can't say |
A |
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Explanation:
Benchmarking is a process
of measuring the performance of a company's products, services, or processes against
those of another
business considered to be the
best in the
industry, aka “best in
class.” The point of benchmarking is
to identify internal opportunities for improvement. |
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66 |
DMAIC is A.
develop, multiply, analyze, improve, check B.
define, multiply, analyze, improve, control C.
define, measure, analyze, improve, control D.
define, manufacture, analyze, improve, control Explanation:
Define, measure, analyze, improve, and control (DMAIC) is a data-driven quality strategy
used to improve processes. The letters in the acronym represent the five
phases that make up the process, including the tools to use to complete those
phases |
C |
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67 |
Check sheet is used during
which part of DMAIC A.
Define B.
Measure C.
Analyze D.
Improve Explanation:
Check Sheets are best used when the data can be collected
by the same person or in the same
location. Therefore it is in measure phase. |
B |
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68 |
Presence of one of the following
after every stage of DMAIC allows for review of project and incorporation of
suggestions. A. Review gate B.
Toll gate C.
Decision gate D.
None of these Explanation:
A DMAIC tollgate (also
called a “phase-gate” or “stage-gate”) is a checkpoints allowing you
to proceed through the DMAIC model.
It marks your project officially progressing from one stage to the next. |
B |
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69 |
The Toyota production
system is based on two pillars namely A.
Kaizen, Six Sigma B.
Lean, Six Sigma C.
Just in Time, Jidoka D.
Just in Time, Kaizen Explanation:Just-in-time (JIT) manufacturing,
also known as just-in-time production or
the Toyota Production System (TPS), is a methodology aimed primarily at
reducing times within the production system as well as response
times from suppliers and to
customers. Jidoka is a Lean method that is
widely-adopted in manufacturing and product development. Also known as
autonomation, it is a simple way of protecting your company from delivering
products of low quality or defects to your customers while trying to keep up
your takt time. |
C |
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70 |
The
diagram shows the location of defect in any unit. This diagram is used in the
analyze step of DMAIC A. Affinity |
C |
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B.
Relations C.
Defect Concentration D.
Scatter Explanation:
The defect concentration diagram is a graphical tool that is
useful in analyzing the causes of
the product or part defects. |
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71 |
Which of the diagram is
used to identify what might go wrong in a plan under development A. Pareto Chart B. PDPC C. Arrow Diagram D. Matrix Diagram Explanation: The
process decision program chart (PDPC)
is a tool used to systematically identifies what might
go. Obtain or develop a tree diagram of the
proposed plan. |
B |
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72 |
The standard normal distribution has mean and
standard deviation, A. 1,0 B. 0,1 C. 0,0 D.
1,1 Explanation: The standard normal
distribution is a normal
distribution with a mean of zero and standard
deviation of 1.
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B |
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73 |
The six sigma improvement
project the least experienced individuals are A.
Green Belt B.
Black belts C.
Red Belts D.
Master Black Belts Explanation:
In six sigma training certificates, varies ranking levels are
there, that are belt level rankings. A Green Belt has expertise in Six Sigma and has set their feet
on the path toward leadership. |
A |
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74 |
Which of the following is
not a use of arrow diagrams A.
Determining the best schedule for the entire project B.
Potential Scheduling problem and solution C. Calculate
critical path of the project |
D |
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D. Identifying
defects in a process Explanation:
The arrow diagramming
method (ADM) refers to a schedule network diagramming technique in which the schedule activities within a
given project are represented by the use of arrows. The beginning of the schedule activity is represented by
the tail, or
base, of the arrow. |
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75 |
Failure Mode and Effect Analysis, which
prioritizes different sources of error is used in one of the following stage A.
Define B.
Measure C.
Improve D.
Analyze Explanation:Failure mode
and effects analysis (FMEA; often written with "failure modes" in plural) is
the process of reviewing as many components, assemblies, and subsystems as
possible to identify potential failure modes in a system and their causes and
effects. |
D |
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76 |
What is the aim of fool proofing technique used for total quality
management? A. to achieve zero defects B. to specify time schedules C. to specify targets D. none of the above Explanation: A poka-yoke is any mechanism in any process that helps
an equipment operator avoid (yokeru) mistakes (poka). Its
purpose is to eliminate product defects by
preventing, correcting,
or drawing attention to human errors as they occur. |
A |
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77 |
Which of the following statements is/are false? 1. Fault tree analysis method is used to determine reliability of product 2. The goal of Six Sigma is to reduce number of defects to 2.4 parts per billion 3. Six sigma is represented by normal distribution curve 4. Poka yoke is a policy which prevents occurrence of human errors A. Only statement 3 B. Statement 2 and statement 3 C. Statement 1, 3 and 4 D. Only statement 2 Explanation: The goal of
Six Sigma is to increase profits by eliminating variability, defects and
waste that undermine customer loyalty.
Six Sigma can be understood/perceived at three levels: Metric: 3.4 Defects
Per Million Opportunities. |
D |
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78 |
Benchmarking determines A. Customer requirements B. Process capability C. How company is doing
relative to others D. Getting ISO 9000 audit done E. If management is motivated |
C |
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Explanation:Benchmarking can become a tool to sustain
this new TQM paradigm, providing a
means to increase an organization's competitive performance by a comparison
with the best-in- class. |
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79 |
Old Management Tools A. Affinity diagram B. Decision Matrix C. Flow chart D. All of
these, Explanation:
New 7 tools Affinity Diagram. Arrow Diagram. Matrix Diagram. Nominal Group Technique (NGT) Process Decision Program Chart
(PDPC) Relations Diagram. Tree Diagram. |
B |
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80 |
Need for new management Tools A. Promote innovation B. Communicate information C. Successfully plan projects D. All of these E. None of these Explanation: New tools are more relational and network oriented. New tools may
take more practice to develop proficiency. |
D |
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81 |
Bench marking process are A. Introgation B. Action C. Maturity D. All the above Explanation: The key steps in benchmarking process are divided into
five phases starting with the planning
phase and evolving through analysis,
integration, action, and finally maturity. |
D |
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82 |
Types of Bench Marking (BM) A. Internal BM B. Competitive BM C. Functional BM D. Generic BM E. All the above Explanation: There are four main types of benchmarking: internal, Competitive ,Functional, Generic BM. |
E |
|
83 |
Reliability of a product
means i.
Consistency of performance ii.
Performance over period iii.
Free of technical errors
The correct order is |
D |
17
|
|
A.
i& iii B.
i& ii C.
ii & iii D.
i, ii & iii Explanation:Reliability is defined as the probability that a
product, system, or service will perform its
intended function adequately for a specified period of time, or will operate
in a defined environment without failure. |
|
|
84 |
Failure Rate is A. Engineering system fails
per hour B. Component fails per hour C. Both. D. None of the above. Explanation:Failure rate is the frequency with which
an engineered system or component fails, expressed for example in failures per hour. It is often
denoted by the Greek letter λ (lambda) and is
important in reliability theory. |
C |
|
85 |
Types of FMEA A. Process FMEA B.
Design FMEA C. Both D. None of these. Explanation: There are two
important types of FMEA are Process FMEA, Design FMEA. |
C |
|
86 |
Classifications of FMEA A. Equipment FMEA B. Maintenance FMEA C. Service FMEA D. System FMEA E. All the above Explanation: Classification of FMEA: System FMEA,
Design FMEA, Process FMEA, Service FMEA, Equipment FMEA, Maintenance FMEA, Concept
FMEA, Environmental FMEA |
E |
|
87 |
Professionals, if they have
not undergone a formal certification program of six sigma. The following belt
will be. A. Green belt B. Black belt C. White belt D. Yellow belt Explanation: Professionals are considered Six
Sigma White Belts if they have not undergone a formal certification program
or extended training. |
C |
|
88 |
The Zero defect concept A.
Is a performance standard for management B.
Is a motivational technique that promotes "doing
it right the first time" C.
Is used by management to communicate to all employees
that everyone should do things
right the first time D.
A and C E.
B and C |
D |
18
|
|
Explanation:
Zero Defects is a
management tool aimed at the reduction of defects through prevention. It is directed at motivating people
to prevent mistakes by developing a constant, conscious desire to do their
job right the first time." — Zero
Defects: A New Dimension in Quality Assurance. |
|
|
89 |
The concept of Zero
inventory is called A.
Six sigma B.
Continuous improvement C.
Just in Time D.
Zero defects Explanation:
A system in which a
company keeps no or very little inventory
in storage, simply ordering exactly what
it needs to sell and receiving it in a timely manner. Zero inventory is the goal of just-in-time inventory
management and the two terms are sometimes used to mean the same thing. |
C |
|
90 |
Some
organizations today are using six sigma to set the upper and lower limits on
control charts rather than the traditional sigmas A. two B.
three C.
four D.
five E.
twelve Explanation:
Control limits on a control chart are commonly drawn at
3s from the center line because 3-sigma
limits are a good balance
point between two types of errors: Type
I or alpha errors occur
when a point falls outside the control
limits even though no special cause is
operating. |
B |
|
|
UNIT-IV TQM TOOLS AND TECHNIQUES II |
|
|
91 |
Which statistical technique integrates product design and
manufacturing process? a) Tree analysis b) Problem solving techniques c) Quality function deployment d) Taguchi approach Explanation: Taguchi’s approach for quality combines statistical
methods and engineering to achieve rapid movement in quality and cost by
optimising the design of a product. It integrates manufacturing process and
product design. |
d |
|
92 |
What is the key step in Taguchi’s approach? a) Tolerance design b) System design c) Parameter design d) Process design Explanation:
Taguchi’s approach is based on integrating system design
(initial design stage), parameter design (Testing various material
combinations) and tolerance design (buying material of better grade).
Parameter design is the key step as it offers the concept of uncontrollable
factor. |
c |
|
93 |
What is called the stratification of information? a) Breaking down a whole
group into smaller sub groups b)
Isolating the vital few from the trivial many |
a |
19
|
|
c) Grouping of scattered
information d) Sequencing of processes in
a quality system Explanation: Stratification of
information is one of the statistical tools which means breaking down of the
whole group into smaller sub-groups. Run charts, effect diagram, pareto
diagram and scatter diagrams are also the statistical tools. |
|
|
94 |
Which technique is used to relate complex cause and effect
relationships? a) Affinity diagram b) Pareto diagram c) Scatter diagram d) Interrelationship diagram Explanation:
Interrelationship diagram is a quality improvement technique
which shows the relationship between inter-related factors. This diagram
displays the factors which are involved in complex problems. |
d |
|
95 |
What is PDPC? a) A statistical tool b) Quality improvement technique c) Quality assurance technique d) Statistical process
control technique Explanation:
PDPC is process decision program chart which helps in the
selection of the best process to obtain desired result. It is a quality
improvement technique. It evaluates existing process and also look at
alternatives. |
b |
|
96 |
What is the first step in problem solving process? a) Plan b) Do c) Check d) Action Explanation: Problems are best solved by the
cycle: Plan-Do-Check-Action. In planning, a course of action is planned
according to customer requirement and conditions of service then the process
must be executed according to this plan. |
a |
|
97 |
How many control charts
are normally used for statistical control of variables? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Explanation: Three
control charts are normally used for statistical control of variables. These
are i) Mean chart, ii) Range chart, and iii) standard deviation
charts. Control charts help in the understanding of inherent capability of
process and bring the process under control. |
c |
|
98 |
Which tool is used to analyse the effects of a failure of individual
components on the system? a) FTA b) FMEA c) Quality circles d) Fool proofing |
b |
|
|
Explanation: Failure mode
and effect analysis (FMEA) is a statistical tool used to review the new product design with
respect to the requirements of customers before it is sent to production. It
is used basically to analyse the failure effect of individual components on
the system as a whole. |
|
|
99 |
What is the formula for
process capability index? a) (1-K)Cp b) (1+K)Cp c) (1-Cp)K d) (1+Cp)K Explanation: Process capability index is also known as measure of
process capability and denoted by Cpk. Cpk = (1-K)*Cp.
K is the correction factor and always has a positive value. Cp is
the process capability potential also known as process capability variation
and is equal to the (Specification width divided by process width). |
a |
|
100 |
What is arrow diagram in TQM? a) A diagram used to plan the
most appropriate schedule b) Diagram shows the
relationship strength between the variables c) Used large amount of data
and organise it on the basis of natural relationship between items d) Diagram showing the
sequencing and inter relationships between factors Explanation: Arrow diagram is a statistical tool used to plan the
most appropriate schedule for any task and to effectively control it during
the progress of the process. Arrow diagram helps in establishing the most
suitable plan for a project. |
a |
|
101 |
What is the aim of fool proofing technique used for total quality
management? a. to achieve zero defects b. to specify time schedules c. to specify targets d. none of the above Explanation: - The use of fool proofing
technique eliminates human errors. Its aim is to obtain zero defects. - To avoid such errors
certain devices are used which produce visual or sonic alarm when errors
occur. - Proper lightening, clean
working conditions and avoiding long hours of work can reduce errors. |
a |
|
102 |
Match the following group 1 items with group 2 items 1. Sort------------------------------------------------------ A.
Seitan 2. Set in order----------------------------------- B. Seiketsu 3. Shine---------------------------------------------------- C. Seiri 4. Standardize-------------------------------------------- D. Seiso a. 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – C b. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B c. 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – D d. 1 –A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B Explanation: The 5S are as follows: 1) Sort: In this step unnecessary items are eliminated by placing a red flag
on them. 2) Set in order: This step helps in effective storage of items in an organized way. 3) Shine: This step refers to cleaning of work
piece. 4) Standardize: According to this step, standards assigned in the organization are to
be followed |
1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B |
|
|
by workers and the duties
are to be pre-assigned. 5) Sustain: This step is difficult to
implement and achieve. |
|
|
103 |
What is meant by Kaizen? a. card signal b. to avoid inadvertent errors c. change for better quality d. none of the above Explanation: Kaizen is a quality improvement method. Innovation
along with Kaizen improves quality. Following are the principles of Kaizen: 1) Collecting relevant information 2) Working as per plan 3) Avoiding wastage 4) Keeping appointments 5) Should follow PDCA cycle |
c |
|
104 |
Which of the following
statements is/are false? 1. Fault tree analysis method
is used to determine reliability of product 2. The goal of Six Sigma is
to reduce number of defects to 2.4 parts per
billion 3. Six sigma is represented
by normal distribution curve 4. Poka yoke is a policy
which prevents occurrence of human errors a. Only statement 3 b. Statement 2 and statement 3 c. Statement 1, 3 and 4 d. Only statement 2 Explanation: Fault tree analysis - It is a mathematical
analysis used to determine reliability of products. - The reliability (R) of a
system is calculated by using the formula: R = 1 – Probability of failure - It graphically depicts
combination of events which lead to failure of products. Six Sigma - Six sigma is a quality
improvement programme which reduces number of defects to 3.4 parts per
million. - The
number of defects are just 3.4 parts per million, hence is considered as zero
defect production. -
It is represented by normal distribution curve. - High acceptable parts are
produced using limits of ± 6σ Poka yoke - Poka Yoke is used to
prevent human errors in production line. - The word Poka Yoke means
avoiding inadvertent errors. - Poka Yoke satisfies three
levels such as: error elimination, in process detection and out process detection. |
d |
|
105 |
Which quality management program is related to the
maintenance of plants and equipments? a. Environmental management systems b. Fault tree analysis c. Failure mode effect analysis d. Total productive maintenance |
d |
|
|
Explanation: - Total productive
maintenance is related with maintenance of plants and equipments. - The main
purpose of TPM is to avoid wastage, produce goods without any loss of quality, reduce costs, etc. - The main
pillars of TPM are 5S, Kaizen, quality maintenance, office TPM, planned maintenance, training, safety,
health and environment and autonomous maintenance. - In this
process maintenance is considered useful and is considered as daily routine
of the organization. |
|
|
106 |
The aim of Just-In-Time
manufacturing principle is to eliminate a. time wastage b. labour wastage c. cost of excessive inventory d. all of the above Explanation: -
The main principle of JIT is to produce when and what is needed. It
also considers the quantity
needed. - JIT (Just-In-Time) aims at
eliminating wastage of labour, time and cost of excessive inventory. - JIT is a pull type system.
In this system, production originates only when an order is received. |
d |
|
107 |
Quality Function
Deployment (QFD) is largely focused on: a.
Reducing costs and
preventing unnecessary costs prior to production b.
To reduce the number of
parts in a product c.
Testing the robustness of
a design d.
Ensuring that the eventual
design of a product or service meets customer needs Explanation: Quality Function Deployment provides
documentation for the decision-making process. QFD helps you to: Translate customer requirements into specific
offering specifications. Prioritize possible offering specifications and make
trade-off decisions based on weighted customer requirements and ranked
competitive assessment. |
d |
|
108 |
The main purpose of
Taguchi methods is to: a. Test the robustness of a design. b. Reduce costs and prevent
any unnecessary costs before producing the product or service. c. Create a ‘house of quality’ d. Articulate the ‘voice of
the customer’ Explanation: Taguchi method of quality control focuses on design and
development to create efficient, reliable products |
a |
|
109 |
Taguchi methods may be
used in which part of the design process? a. Preliminary design b. Screening c. Prototyping and final design d. Evaluation and improvement Explanation:
Taguchi Method is a
process/product optimization method that
is based on 8- steps of
planning, conducting and evaluating results of matrix experiments to
determine the best levels of control factors |
d |
|
110 |
Control
chart is i. Process monitoring tool ii. Process control tool |
b |
|
|
iii. Process planning tool
The Correct Answer is a. i only b. i & ii c. i, ii & iii d. None of the above Explanation:
Control charts are the
tools in control processes to
determine whether a manufacturing process or a business process is in a
controlled statistical state. This chart
is a graph which is used to study process changes over time. |
|
|
111 |
TQM focuses on i. Supplier ii. Employee iii. Customer The Correct Answer is a. i only b. ii & iii c. i, ii & iii d. None of the above Explanation:
A primary focus of TQM and
most Quality Management Systems is to improve customer satisfaction by having
a customer focus and consistently meeting customer expectations |
b |
|
112 |
Process evaluation is to identify i. Validation of product ii. Potential failure prevention iii. Correctness of product The Correct Answer is a. i only b. i & ii c. ii & iii d. None of the above Explanation:
A process
evaluation focuses on the implementation process and attempts to determine
how successfully the project followed the strategy laid out in the logic
model. |
c |
|
113 |
Six Sigma is a
business-driven, multi-dimensional structured approach to a. Reducing process
variability b. Increasing customer satisfaction c. Lowering Defects &
Improving Processes d. All of the above Explanation: Six Sigma
is a business-driven,
multi-dimensional structured approach to: Choice-1: Reducing process
variability. Choice-2: Increasing customer satisfaction. Choice-3: Lowering
Defects. |
d |
|
114 |
Small/Mid-sized Six Sigma projects are executed by professionals
titled as: a.
Champion b.
Green Belt c. Black Belt d. Site Champion |
b |
|
115 |
Which of the following are
examples of Internal Failure costs? |
a |
|
|
a. Defects and rework b. Inspection and audits c. Warranty and returns d. Purchasing and accounting Explanation: Examples of internal failure
costs are: Failure analysis activities. Product rework costs. Product scrapped, net of
scrap sales. Throughput lost. |
|
|
116 |
The main purpose of the measure phase of DMAIC is to a. Determine the customer requirements b. Find root causes c. Develop solutions d. Set baseline data to
understand how the process is currently performing Explanation:
DMAIC (an acronym for Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and
Control) refers to a data-driven improvement cycle used for improving,
optimizing and stabilizing business processes and designs. |
d |
|
117 |
What does OEE stand for? a.
Overall Equipment Effectiveness b.
Overall Estimation Effectiveness c.
Overall Equipment Estimation d.
Overall Effective Estimation Explanation: OEE (Overall Equipment Effectiveness) is a
“best practices” metric that identifies the percentage of planned production
time that is truly productive. |
a |
|
118 |
The best metric for measuring defectives is: a.
DPMO b.
DPU c.
PPM d.
DPO Explanation: PPM defective is one of the simplest metrics in Six Sigma to
understand. It refers to the expected number of parts out of one million that
you can expect to be defective. It is a measurement
used today by many customers to measure the quality performance of their
suppliers. |
c |
|
119 |
Which of the following
tools is used extensively in quality function deployment? a.
Affinity diagram b.
Matrix diagram c.
Cause and effect diagram d.
Activity network diagram Explanation: The House of Quality is an effective tool used to
translate the customer wants and needs into product or service design
characteristics utilizing a relationship matrix.
It is usually the first matrix used in the QFD process. |
b |
|
120 |
The most important factor for the success of six sigma projects is: a. Leadership support b. Team support |
a |
|
|
c. Teamwork d. Inter-department
harmony Explanation: Effective Six Sigma management requires
commitment and active participation by senior executives, and leadership and communications by
organizational champions. |
|
|
Unit –V
QUALITY SYSTEMS |
|
|
|
121 |
The objective of ISO-9000 family of Quality management is A. Customer satisfaction B. Employee satisfaction C. Skill enhancement D. Environmental issues Explanation: The ISO 9000 family of quality management systems (QMS) is a set of
standards that helps organizations ensure they meet customers satisfaction. So
option A is correct |
a |
|
122 |
ISO 14000 quality standard is related with A. Environmental management systems B. Automotive quality standards C. Eliminating poor quality D. Customer satisfaction Explanation: ISO 14000 standards are set of norms for
Environmental management systems
either at organization process level or product level So
option A is correct |
a |
|
123 |
ISO stands for A. Internal standards and operations B. International
specifications organization C. International Standards organization D. None of these are correct Explanation: ISO is abbreviated as
International Standards organization is an association of national standards
bodies of more than 150 countries So
option C is correct |
c |
|
124 |
ISO 9001 is not concerned with---------------------- of quality records A. Collection B. Maintenance C. Verification D. Dis-positioning Explanation: The practices defining the quality records to be
maintained in the CMM are distributed throughout the key process areas in the
various Activities Performed practices. So
option C is correct |
c |
|
125 |
Which of the following requires design control
measure, such as holding and recording design reviews and qualification test? A.
CMM B. ISO 9001 C. ISO 9000-3 D. None of the mentioned Explanation: |
c |
|
|
ISO 9000-3 states
that the supplier should carry out reviews to ensure the requirements are met and design methods are correctly
carried out. So option C is correct |
|
|
126 |
states that, where appropriate, adequate statistical techniques are
identified and used to verify the acceptability of process capability and
product characteristics. A. ISO 9001 B. ISO 9000-4 C. CMM D. All of the mentioned Explanation: ISO 9001 states that, where, appropriate
adequate statistical techniques are identified and used to verify the
acceptability of process capability and product characteristics. So
option A is correct |
a |
|
127 |
Documents to prepared for quality system A.
1. Policy 2.Procedures 3.Work Instructions 4. Records B.
1.Products 2.Requirements 3.Performance 4.Processes C.
1.Arrangements 2.Formats 3.Objectives
4.Quality D.
1. Standards 2.Implementation 3.Accredation 4. Purposes. Explanation: The
documents required for implementing Quality system are 1. Quality
Policy manual 2.Quality System Procedures 3.Work Instructions and 4.
Records/Formats/Forms So
option A is correct |
a |
|
128 |
Types of Audit A. First
Party audit B. Second
Party Audit C. Third
Party Audit D. All
the above Explanation: The types of are 1. First Party audit (internal audit) 2.
Second Party Audit and 3. Third Party Audit So option D is correct |
d |
|
129 |
NCR abbreviated as A. Non
Conformance report B. National
capital Region C. National
Cash register D. None
of the above Explanation: Non Conformance Report ,During ISO certification things do
not comply ISO requirements are reported in format of NCR So
option A is correct |
a |
|
130 |
ISO 9000 standards are set of norms for A. Environmental Management System B. Technical Specification form C. Quality Management system D. Independent Examination Explanation: ISO 9000 is defined as a set of international standards on quality management and
quality assurance developed to help companies effectively document the quality system
elements needed to maintain an efficient quality system. So
option C is correct |
c |
|
131 |
Which of these is the equivalent Indian standard for ISO :8402 A.ISO 9000 |
b |
|
|
B.ISO:13999(as per 1994 version) C.ISO/TS
16949 D.ISO 14000 Explanation: The equivalent Indian standard for ISO :8402 is ISO 13999 as per 1994
version So
option B is correct |
|
|
132 |
ISO/TS 16949 standards are standards for A. Organizational benefits B. Satisfying customer C. Public authorities D. Automotive Quality
Management system Explanation: ISO/TS 16949:2009, in conjunction with ISO 9001:2008, defines the quality management system requirements for the design and
development, production and, when relevant, installation and service of
automotive-related products. So
option D is correct |
d |
|
133 |
The various product evaluation standards of ISO 14000 are A. Environmental aspects in
product standards B. Environmental Labels and declaration C. Life cycle Assessment D. All the above Explanation: The Environmental aspects in product
standards, Environmental Labels and declaration , Life cycle Assessment are
the standards of ISO 140000 So
option D is correct |
d |
|
134 |
The stages of an audit A. Planning, Performance,
Reporting, Follow-up B. Specification,
Requirements, System, Quality C. Implementation, Plan,
Processes, Document D. Objective, Analysis,
Forms, Results Explanation: The stages of an audit are
1. Audit planning 2. Audit performance 3. Audit reporting, and 4. Audit
follow –up. So
option A is correct |
a |
|
135 |
The various organization evolution standards of ISO 14000 series of
standards are A. Environmental Management system B. Environmental Auditing C. Environmental Performance Evaluation D.
All the above Explanation: The
various organization evolution standards of ISO 14000 series of standards are
Environmental Management system (EMS), Environmental Auditing (EA),
Environmental Performance Evaluation (EPE). So
option D is correct |
d |
|
136 |
The benefits realized by implementing an ISO 14000 quality system are A. Resource benefits, Party benefits B. Global benefits,
Organizational benefits C.
Public benefits ,Private benefits D.
Management benefits, Employee benefits Explanation: |
b |
|
|
The benefits realized by implementing an
ISO 14000 quality system are Global benefits: To facilitate trade
and remove trade
barriers to improve
environmental performance
Organizational benefits: Satisfying customer requirements, Assuring customer
of a commitment to EM So option B is correct |
|
|
137 |
ISO 9000 made up of three core standards they are A. ISO9001: 9100, ISO 9001: 2008, ISO 9100 : 2008 B.ISO 9000:2005, ISO: 9001:2008, ISO : 9004:2009 C.ISO 9000: 9100, ISO 9000: 2005, ISO: 9000: 2000 D. None of the above Explanation: The family of ISO 9000 made up of three core standards •
ISO 9000:2005, : QMS : Fundamentals •
ISO: 9001:2008, : QMS : Requirements • ISO : 9004:2009 QMS :
Guidelines for performance Improvement So option B is correct |
b |
|
138 |
BIS is abbreviated as A. Body of India standards B. Bureau of Indian Standards C. Basic India standards D. None of the above Explanation: BIS (Bureau of Indian Standards) is
national standards body of India and is a founder members of ISO So
option B is correct |
b |
|
139 |
Which IS/ISO 9000 standard is meant for certification A. IS/ISO 9001 B. IS/ISO 9004 C. IS/ISO 9100 D. TL
9000 Explanation: Any organization can
apply for certification against IS/ISO 9001.
The other IS/ISO
9000 and IS/ISO 9004 are guidance standards and
are not meant for certification. So
option A is correct |
a |
|
140 |
The key elements of Audit performance are A. Schedules,
Personnel, Checklist B. Requirements,
Assurance, Manuals C. Opening
meeting, Audit process, Audit deficiencies D. None
of the above Explanation: The key elements of Audit performance are Opening
meeting: organized to initially brief the auditee about the scope of audit
Audit process: run to schedule and should cover entire scope as planned Audit deficiencies: clear and precise
discrepancy reports are raised. So option C is correct |
c |
|
141 |
ISO 14000 standards divided into two area they are A. Organization
,Product Evaluation Standards B. Global
, Environmental Standards C. Management,
Assessment Standards D. Customer,
Public Standards Explanation: |
a |
|
|
ISO 14000
standards divided into two area they are Organization
standards: the way in which business is to be conducted and govern what is
deemed as acceptable behavior in the workplace. Product
Evaluation Standards: that lays down the requirements to be accomplished by a
product or a group of products to certify its fitness for use. So option A is correct |
|
|
142 |
Which ISO 14000 standard
is meant for certification A. ISO 14001 B. ISO 14004 C. ISO 9100 D. TS 16949 Explanation: ISO 14001 is a contractual
standard against which organization are certified.ISO 14004 a non-
contractual standard is meant for providing guidance for EMS implementation. So option A is correct |
a |
|
143 |
QS 9000 is set of quality
system for A. Environmental
System B. Automotive suppliers C. Management
System D. Customer
satisfaction Explanation: QS 9000 is set of quality
system requirements to help automotive suppliers to ensure that they are
meeting/exceeding customer requirements So option B is correct |
b |
|
144 |
The purpose of EMS audit
is A. Co-operation with public authorities. B. Management commitment C. To ensure that EMS
conforms to plans D. None of the above Explanation: The purpose
of EMS audit is to ensure that the EMS conforms the plans So option C is correct |
c |
|
145 |
The third party audit is
for A. Organization B. Independent organization C. Customer D. All
the above Explanation: The third party audit refers to audit by an
independent organization on a supplier for accreditation assessment purposes. So option B is correct |
b |
|
146 |
What is the purpose of ISO
9000:2005 in QMS? A. Fundamental Vocabulary B. Certification C. Customer requirement D. Management Explanation: The
family of ISO 9000 made up of core standards among that ISO 9000:2005, :
Quality Management System : Fundamentals So option A is correct |
a |
|
147 |
What is the purpose of ISO
9001:2008 in QMS? A. Requirement |
a |
|
|
B. Planning C. Documentation D. Verification Explanation: The family of ISO 9000
made up of core standards among that ISO: 9001:2008, : Quality Management
System: Requirements So option A is correct |
|
|
148 |
What is the purpose of ISO 9004:2009 in QMS? A. Policy B. Review C. Guidelines for performance improvement D. Benefits Explanation: The family of ISO 9000 made up of core standards among that ISO : 9004:2009 Quality
Management System: Guidelines for performance Improvement So option C is correct |
c |
|
149 |
Why we need Quality Auditing? A. To verify whether the
system is effective and suitable B. To decide about the policy C. To maintain the standards D. For monitoring and
measurement purpose Explanation: Quality auditing should be
carried out in order to verify whether a quality system is effective and
suitable. So
option A is correct |
A |
|
150 |
The two generic ISO standards are A.ISO 9001 & ISO 14001 B.ISO 8402 & ISO 13999 C. QS 9000 &TS 16949 D. None of the above Explanation: The two generic ISO standards are ISO 9001 : Quality Management system –Requirements ISO 14001: Environmental
Management system-specification with guidance for use. Generic standards mean
that the same standards can be applied to any organization. So
option A is correct |
|
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